OK. I have problems getting any sort of loan (mainly because, I
think, of the high limits on some of my credit cards).

Anyway, all the credit cards are in my name, with wife as additional
cardholder. Shes got nothing in her name at all (apart from joint on
mortgage).

If she applies for a loan, do they automatically take into account my
debts because I'm married to her, or is it purely on her
circumstances?

She doesnt work full time, but does get a decent yearly wage of about
£18K and we only want a loan for about £2K.

Good idea or not?

Generally speaking, if she is applying for a loan, (i.e. not joint) they will still take into account how any joint liabilities / accounts have been run.

Obviously your infomation would come up via her credit search as an association anyway, both through the address and through joint accounts / mortgage.

There is no hard and fast rule as the 'association' and how it will/may affect the application will very from lender to lender. Some will (with the small amount concerned v income) just gloss over your history, whereas others will make a point of it and how it could influence your wife if either of your circumstances change (e.g. loss of your income).

Typically, the best route would be to first apply for a loan in her name only, via her own bank if she has a well run bank account in her name?

When getting Cash 1 hour, examine the terms and conditions carefully, make sure you are well aware of the payment schedule, as well as the rate of interest that will be applied.

I think what you can do is you can apply for the loan using her name with her bank. This will be the best help for you in this situation. If I was in your place, I would try that and see what kind of response I get.